COPYRIGHT 1997 by Michael Flowers. Anyone is at liberty to use material from this booklet with or without credit, as long as it is not for profit. In preparing this booklet, the writer has received help from many sources, some acknowledged and many unacknowledged. He believes the material herein set forth to be a true statement of Scripture teaching, and his desire is to further, not to restrict, its use.

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Table of Contents

PREFACE
INTRODUCTION
CHAPTER 1: EXPLICIT STATEMENTS FROM SCRIPTURE WHICH PROVE CHRIST'S DEITY
   TESTIMONY FROM THE VARIOUS WRITERS OF SCRIPTURE CONCERNING CHRIST'S DEITY
   CHRIST'S OWN TESTIMONY REGARDING HIS DEITY
CHAPTER 2: IMPLICIT ARGUMENTS CONCERNING CHRIST'S DEITY
    1.) He is worshipped
   2.) He forgives sin
   3.) He is perfect--i.e. without sin
    4.) He is the Savior of mankind
   5.) He receives prayer
   6.) He is omnipotent
   7.) He is the judge of the world
   8.) He is King of kings and Lord of lords

CHAPTER 3: COMMON OBJECTIONS
   1.) How can Jesus be both the Son of God and God Himself?
   2.) So if Jesus was God, how could He have died?
   3.) Why did Jesus pray to God if He Himself was God?
   4.) If Jesus was a Son, does this not imply that He was created?
   5.) Why did Jesus say, "The Father is greater than I"
   6.) How could Jesus be tempted if He was God?

CONCLUSION

APPENDIX: TECHNICAL DISCUSSION ON THE GRAMMAR AND TRANSLATION OF JOHN 1:1

PREFACE

What does the Bible tell us concerning Jesus Christ? This is a matter of great concern for all who subscribe to the teachings of the Bible and have a humble and honest desire to worship and serve the God revealed therein. We contend that the Bible plainly teaches that Jesus is God. And it is certain that whenever this truth is denied, heretical conceptions of Christ will be advanced in its place. After all, if Jesus is not God, then who or what is he? Is he a demi- or quasi-god? Was he merely a good man or an angel? Was he a liar or a madman? In the end, those who deny Christ's deity can not put forth an alternate concept of Christ which coheres with and does justice to the general teachings of Scripture. Recall therefore the words of Christ: "Whom do you say that I am?" This is no trivial question which can be ignored or downplayed as false doctrine is truly a damnable offence to God (2Cor 11:3-4; Gal 1:7-8; 5:20-21; 1Tim 6:1; 2Pt 2:1; Rev 2:14-16, 20-25). Jesus declared candidly, "If you do not believe that I AM, you shall die in your sins." (Jhn 8:24; cf. Ex 3:13-14)

We challenge the reader to examine the evidence presented in this short booklet, and, with God's grace, make an effort to arrive at a better understanding concerning the person, work, significance and status of Jesus Christ. top

CHAPTER 1: EXPLICIT STATEMENTS FROM SCRIPTURE WHICH PROVE CHRIST'S DEITY

TESTIMONY FROM THE VARIOUS WRITERS OF SCRIPTURE CONCERNING CHRIST'S DEITY

In the following two verses, both Peter and Paul call Jesus "the God and Savior" of Christians:

2Pt 1:1 Simon Peter, a servant and an apostle of Jesus Christ, to them that have obtained like precious faith with us through the righteousness our God and Savior Jesus Christ.

Titus 2:13 Looking toward that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God and Savior of us, Jesus Christ.

In these verses, the definite article (tou/) is used only once to modify both "God" and "Savior," proving that "God" and "Savior" are one and the same Person.¹

In the same way, Paul writes:

2Th 1:12 That the name of our Lord Jesus Christ may be glorified in you, and you in Him, according to the grace of our God and Lord Jesus Christ.

Here Paul calls Jesus both the God and Lord of Christians.

John also declares that Jesus was God:

Jhn 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God .²

Jesus' deity is further demonstrated by Thomas' words which he spoke to Jesus when Jesus, after His resurrection, appeared to Thomas:

Jhn 20:28 And Thomas answered and said unto Him, "The Lord of me and the God of me."

Some might claim that Thomas was not asserting the deity of Christ in this verse, but that he was using God's name in vain as a kind of exclamatory statement--in somewhat the same way many persons nowadays blurt out, "Oh my God" when frightened or surprised. But "Oh my God" and other such statements are modern idioms which would have found no place in the mouth of a Jew of Jesus' day. Such a flippant use of God's name was regarded as blasphemous and merited capital punishment (Ex 20:7; Lev 24:16; 1Kings 21:13; Jhn 10:33). Besides, Jesus did not so much as rebuke Thomas for making this statement. Instead, He pronounces a blessing on all who share Thomas' faith (Jhn 20:29).

Nor is it defensible to claim that Thomas was addressing Jesus as "the Lord of me," but the Father as "the God of me." John writes that "Thomas answered and said unto him" (singular). Thomas words have only one object--Jesus.

The author of Hebrews likewise speaks of Jesus divinity:

Heb 1:8 But unto the Son He says, "Your throne, O God, is for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of Your kingdom."

The author of Hebrews is citing Psalm 45:6 and applying it to "the Son." The word for "God" in this Psalm is Elohim.

Similarly, he quotes Psalm 102:25-27,

Heb 1:8, 10-12 But unto the Son He says, . . . "You, Lord, in the beginning laid the foundation of the earth; and the heavens are the works of Your hands. They shall perish; but You remain; and they all shall wax old like a garment; and as a vesture You shall fold them up, and like a garment they shall be changed: but You are the same, and Your years shall not fail."

In Psalm 102, the psalmist praises Yahweh, the Creator, for His eternality and immutability. In verse 1, he addresses Yahweh by name. In verses 12, 15, 16, 18, 19, 21, and 22 he again invokes the name Yahweh. In verse 24, he invokes the name Elohim. Clearly, this psalm is referring to the one and only God. And yet the author of Hebrews applies it to "the Son."

The Old Testament name Yahweh is applied to Jesus by other New Testament authors as well when they quote the Old Testament. Consider, for example, Peter's words in the book of Acts:

Acts 2:24-25 Whom God raised up, having loosed the pains of death, because it was not possible that He should be held by it. For David says concerning Him: "I foresaw the LORD always before my face, for He is at my right hand, that I may not be shaken."

Peter quotes this Scripture as proof for Christ's resurrection. The fact that David "foresaw the LORD always" before his face demonstrated that Jesus would not remain in the grave. Notice, however, that this quotation comes from Psalm 16:8 where the Hebrew word we translate "LORD" is Yahweh .

Again, Paul tells his readers in Romans 10:13 that "whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved." The "Lord" upon whom sinners are to call is "Jesus" according to verse 9. And yet Paul is quoting from Joel 2:32 which reads:

And it shall come to pass, that whosoever shall call upon the name of Yahweh shall be saved.

All of God's saints must "call upon the name of our Lord Jesus Christ" (1Cor 1:2; see also Ac 9:14, 17, 21; 22:16, 19) in order to be saved. Thus, "the name of the Lord Jesus Christ" and "the name of Yahweh" are equivalent.

In John 12:41, we are told that "Isaiah . . . beheld His glory and spoke of Him." According to vv. 37, 42, the "Him" of whom John is referring is Jesus. In verse 40, John had just quoted a passage from Isaiah chapter 6--"He has blinded their eyes and hardened their heart . . . &c." (Isa 6:10) This quote provides us with the context of John's statement in verse 41 because he writes, "these things Isaiah said when he beheld His glory. . . &c." (That is, the "these things" refers to the words John just quoted from Isaiah 6:10). In Isaiah chapter 6, we read that Isaiah saw a vision of the seraphim worshipping before the throne of God crying, "Holy, holy, holy, is Yahweh of hosts. The whole earth is full of His glory." (vs. 3) When Isaiah beheld this dreadful sight, he exclaimed, "My eyes have seen the King, Yahweh of hosts." (vs. 5) Whose glory was it then that Isaiah beheld? Yahweh's. But to whom was John referring? Jesus. top

CHRIST'S OWN TESTIMONY REGARDING HIS DEITY

In the book of Revelation, Jesus declares:

Rev 1:8 "I am the Alpha and Omega, beginning and ending," says the Lord God, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty.

Jesus actually calls Himself "the Almighty. " This is a title that only God can assume (see Rev 4:8).

Some might attempt to argue that Jesus is not the person speaking in Revelation 1:8. But this is disproved by what follows just a few verses down:

Rev 1:17-18 . . . "Fear not; I am the first and the last.  I am He that lives, and was dead; and, behold, I am alive for evermore. Amen; and have the keys of hell and of death."

Rev 2:8 And to the angel of the church in Smyrna write; "These things says the first and the last, Who was dead, and is alive."

In these verses the Person being called "the first and the last" was once dead, but now lives. Who would argue that this is not a reference to Jesus? Clearly Jesus is the one Who was "once dead, but now lives." This expression "the first and the last" is used interchangeably with "the Alpha and the Omega" as other verses prove:

Rev 22:13 I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the end, the first and the last.

So if Jesus is the "first and the last" then He is also "the Alpha and the Omega." Thus Jesus is indeed the speaker in Revelation 1:8 Who calls Himself "the Almighty."

Now note how Jesus' name is again used in connection with "the Alpha and the Omega" in the following verses:

Rev 21:6-7 And He said unto me, "It is done. I am the Alpha and the Omega, the beginning and the end. I will give unto him that is athirst of the fountain of the water of life freely. He that overcomes shall inherit all things; and I will be his God, and he shall be my son."

Here we are told that for those who overcome, Jesus will be their God. That Jesus is the speaker here is demonstrated by the expressions, "the Alpha and the Omega" and "the beginning and the end" which, as we have shown, are expressions which are used inter-changeably with "the first and the last" (which refers to Jesus). This may seem like an indirect way of showing that "the Alpha and the Omega" is Jesus; but the following verses could not be more direct:

Rev 22:13-16 I am the Alpha and the Omega, the beginning and the end, the first and the last. Blessed are they that do His commandments, that they may have right to the tree of life, and may enter in through the gates into the city. For outside are dogs, and sorcerers, and fornicators, and murderers, and idolaters, and whosoever loves and makes a lie. I Jesus have sent mine angel to testify unto you these things in the churches. I am the root and the offspring of David,³ and the bright and morning star.

Jesus is clearly proven to be divine in the book of Revelation. He is "the first and the last" and therefore "the Almighty" (Rev 1:17-18). He is "the Alpha and the Omega" and therefore "God" (Rev 21:6-7). Indeed, the mere fact that Jesus is called "the first and the last" should have given this away immediately since these words are obviously meant to echo the words of Isaiah:

Isa 41:4 Who has wrought and done it, calling the generations from the beginning? I Yahweh, the first, and with the last; I am He.

Isa 44:6 Thus says Yahweh, the King of Israel, and his redeemer Yahweh of hosts; I am the first, and I am the last; and beside Me there is no God.

Jesus again declared that He was God when He said, "Before Abraham was, I am." (Jhn 8:58) This expression and others like it (Mt 14:27; Mk 13:6; 14:62; Jhn 4:26; 8:24; 13:19; 18:5-6, 8; Rev 1:8, 17) recall Yahweh's words to Abraham:

Gen 17:1 And when Abram was ninety nine years old, Yahweh appeared to Abram, and said unto him, I am the Almighty God; walk before Me, and be perfect.

They also recall Yahweh's words to Moses at the burning bush:

Ex 3:14 And God said unto Moses, "I AM  THAT I AM": and He said, "Thus shall you say to the children of Israel, 'I AM has sent me unto you.'" (cf. Dt 32:39; Isa 43:10; Mt 22:32)

No wonder the Jews took up stones to throw at Jesus when He made this claim (Jhn 8:59).

In John 10:32-33, Jesus asks the Jews,

"Many good works have I shown you from my Father; for which of those works do you stone Me?" The Jews answered Him, saying, "For a good work we stone You not; but for blasphemy; and because You, being a man, make yourself God."

Some have argued that the Jews responded this way simply because they misunderstood Jesus. But notice what John writes elsewhere:

Jhn 5:18 Therefore the Jews sought to kill Him even more, because He not only had broken the sabbath but also said that God was His Father, making Himself equal to God.

This verse is not a continuation of the narrative in verse 17. It is a parenthesis between verse 17 and 18.⁴It is not implied, therefore, that this verse contains merely a false accusation made by the Jews. Jesus may indeed have said nothing more than that God was His Father, but it is John who points out the significance of this claim. "Making Himself equal to God" is John's own inspired commentary, not a false accusation made by the Jews.⁵By inserting this parenthesis, John is trying to explain to his readers what Jesus meant when He said that God was His Father.

Moreover, Jesus had just admitted to having broken the sabbath--"My Father works until now and I work." (vs. 17).⁶ And we know too that Jesus indeed said that God was His Father--"My Father works . . . &c." (cf. also Jhn 10:29-30). So it seems arbi-trary to maintain that, yes, Jesus "had broken the sabbath" and that, yes, He "said that God was His Father," but that, no, He was not "making Himself equal to God."

It would not have been a false accusation to claim either that Jesus broke the sabbath or that He said that God was His Father. So why would it have been a false accusation to claim that Jesus was making Himself equal with the Father. top

CHAPTER 2: IMPLICIT ARGUMENTS CONCERNING CHRIST'S DEITY

Aside from explicit statements, Jesus' divinity is shown by the fact that:

1.) He is worshipped:
Rev 5:11-13 And I beheld, and I heard the voice of many angels round about the throne and the beasts and the elders: and the number of them was ten thousand times ten thousand, and thousands of thousands; saying with a loud voice, "Worthy is the Lamb that was slain to receive power, and riches, and wisdom, and strength, and honor, and glory, and blessing." And every creature which is in heaven, and on the earth, and under the earth, and such as are in the sea, and all that are in them, I heard saying, "Blessing, and honor, and glory, and power, be unto Him that sits upon the throne, and unto the Lamb for ever and ever."

In these verses, all creation is said to be ascribing honor and glory and power to Jesus. This is worship which God alone deserves:

Isa 42:8 I am Yahweh: that is my name: and my glory will I not give to another . . . (see also Ps 29:1-2; 96:7-8; Rev 19:1)

The Old Testament strictly prohibits the worship of any god besides Yahweh:

Ex 34:14 For thou shalt worship no other god: for Yahweh, whose name is Jealous, is a jealous God.

Jesus too endorsed this command:

Mt 4:10 Then Jesus said to him, "Get thee hence, Satan: for it is written, 'Thou shalt worship (proskune,w) the Lord thy God, and Him only shalt thou serve.'"

Nevertheless, Jesus allowed others to worship Him:

Mt 28:9 . . . Jesus met them, saying, "Greetings." And they came and held Him by the feet, and worshipped Him.

Mt 28:17 And when they saw Him, they worshipped Him.

In fact, the Father Himself commands that Jesus be worshipped:

Heb 1:6 . . . when He brings in the firstbegotten into the world, He says, "And let all the angels of God worship Him."

Jhn 5:22-23 For the Father judges no man, but has committed all judgment unto the Son: that all men should honor the Son, even as they honor the Father. He that honors not the Son honors not the Father Who has sent Him.

Over and over again we read that Jesus was worshipped (Mt 2:2, 8; 8:2; 9:18; 14:33; 15:25; 20:20; 21:15-16; 28:9, 17; Lk 24:52; Jhn 9:38; 2Th 1:12; 2Pt 3:18; Rev 5:8; etc.). Are these all instances where men and angels have "worshipped and served the creature alongside the Creator" (Rom 1:25)? The worship of humans and angels is forthrightly condemned in Scripture (Ac 10:25-26; Rev 19:10; 22:8-9; Col 2:18). Jesus must have been God--"Thou shalt worship the Lord thy God, and Him only shalt thou serve." top

2.) He forgives sin:

The Jews were reasoning correctly when they posed the rhetorical question, "Who can forgive sins but God only?" (Mk 2:7; see Ex 34:6-7; Isa 43:25) For who can forgive an offense, except the one who has been offended? Think of it like this: If my brother were to sin against me, would it not be ridiculous for one of my brother's friends to come and forgive him? In order for my brother to obtain my forgiveness, he must receive it from me. Who is Jesus then to exercise a prerogative which is reserved for God alone?:

Mk 2:5-10 When Jesus saw their faith, He said unto the sick of the palsy, "Son, your sins are forgiven." But there were certain of the scribes sitting there, and reasoning in their hearts, "Why does this man thus speak blasphemies? Who can forgive sins but God only?" And immediately when Jesus perceived in His spirit that they so reasoned within themselves, He said unto them, ". . . the Son of man has power on earth to forgive sins."

Lk 7:48-49 And He said to her, "Your sins are forgiven." And those reclining at table with Him said amongst themselves, "Who is this that forgives sins also?" top

3.) He is perfect--i.e. without sin:

Mk 10:18 And Jesus said unto him, "Why do you call me good? There is none good but one, that is, God."

The Scriptures plainly teach that "there is none righteous, no not one. . . . There is none that does good, no not one." (Rom 3:10, 12) Again, "There is not a just man upon the earth that does good and does not sin." (Ecc 7:20) Some have attempted to use the verse shown above (i.e. Mk 10:18) to disprove Jesus' divinity. Their assumption, of course, is that Jesus was not good. This assumption, however, contradicts other passages of Scripture which clearly teach that Jesus was good: Jesus is said to be "without sin," "righteous," "spotless," "holy," etc. (2Cor 5:21; 1Pt 2:22; Heb 4:15; 7:26; Jhn 8:24, 29, 46; Mk 1:24; 1Pt 1:19; 3:18; Ac 3:14; 10:38; 1Jhn 3:5). It would be wrong, therefore, to conclude that in this verse Jesus was admitting to some unholy defect or sin.

So how should we understand His words here? In Jesus' day, it was common for certain men to be regarded with high esteem if they appeared to live especially pious lives (Mt 6:2, 5, 16). Being held in such high esteem caused many of these men to became vainglorious and prideful. Vainglory and pride are themselves great sins. But what was even more sinful was the way that these men (rather than God) became the standard by which holiness and goodness were measured. In seeking to assert their own righteousness, Paul tells us, they refused to submit themselves to the righteousness of God (Rom 10:1-3). Such man-centered standards of righteousness, holiness, goodness, etc. ultimately perverted and detracted from a true understanding of the righteousness, holiness and goodness of God (Mt 23:27-28; Lk 16:15).

Jesus knew that this man was extolling Him, not on account of His divine nature, but simply because others had regarded Him as "a good man" (cf. Jhn 7:12). Jesus was only attempting to shift this man's attention away from man and back toward God. He did not say, "Why do you call me good? I am not God," nor did He even say, "Why do you call me good, I am not good." Rather, He said, "Why do you call me good? There is none good but one, that is, God." It is as though Jesus was asking, "Are you calling me good because I am a good man, or because I am God?" Jesus is both man and God. Nevertheless, we are to honor and extol Him on account of His divinity, not simply because He was a good man.

Jesus embodies the very righteousness of God (Jer 23:6; 33:16; 1Cor 1:30; Php 3:9; 2Pt 1:1). We are made just with God only if His atoning sacrifice and righteousness are attributed to us (Isa 53:11; Rom 3:25; 4:24; 5:17-19; 2Cor 5:21; Col 1:22; 1Pt 3:18; 1Jhn 2:2; 4:10). top

4.) He is the Savior of mankind:
Lk 2:11 For unto you is born this day in the city of David a Savior, Who is Christ the Lord.

Jhn 4:42 . . . this is indeed the Christ, the Savior of the world.

Php 3:20 . . . we look for the Savior, the Lord Jesus Christ.

2Tim 1:10 . . . the appearing of our Savior Jesus Christ, Who Has abolished death, and has brought life and immortality to light through the gospel.

Titus 1:4 . . . Grace, mercy, and peace, from God the Father and the Lord Jesus Christ our Savior.

Titus 2:13 Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of our great God and Savior Jesus Christ.

2Pt 1:11 . . . the everlasting kingdom of our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ.

2Pt 3:18 But grow in grace, and in the knowledge of our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ. To Him be glory both now and for ever. Amen.

God alone is the Savior of man (Isa 45:21-22; Hos 13:4; Jas 4:12; Jude 25). No mere man can save another man's soul. As Isaiah 43:11 states:

I, even I, am Yahweh; and beside Me there is no savior.

Yet salvation is dispensed by Christ (Jhn 5:21; 15:16; 17:2; Ac 15:11; 1Tim 1:15). Hence, Christ is the "Savior." He is "the author of eternal salvation" (Heb 5:9; cf. 12:2). When, by the power of God, a crippled man was healed, Peter made this point quite clearly:

Acts 4:10-12 Be it known unto you all, and to all the people of Israel, that by the name of Jesus Christ of Nazareth, Whom you crucified, Whom God raised from the dead, even by Him does this man stand here before you whole. This is the stone which was set at naught of you builders, which is become the headstone of the corner. Neither is there salvation in any other: for there is no other name under heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved. (compare also Ps 18:3; 116:13; Joel 2:32) top

5.) He receives prayer:

Acts 7:59 And they stoned Stephen, calling out, and saying, "Lord Jesus, receive my spirit."

Rev 22:20 He which testifies these things says, "Surely I come quickly." "Amen. Even so, come, Lord Jesus." (See also Ac 9:10-17; 22:17-21; 2Cor 12:8-9; Rev 5:8) top

6.) He is omnipotent:

Only God is all-powerful--

1Chr 29:11 Thine, O Yahweh, is the greatness, and the power, and the glory, and the victory, and the majesty: for all that is in the heaven and in the earth is Thine; Thine is the kingdom, O Yahweh, and Thou art exalted as head above all. (See also Gen 17:1; Ps 62:11; Rev 4:8)

Yet Christ is said to be all-powerful--

Mt 28:18 And Jesus came and spoke unto them, saying, "All power is given unto Me in heaven and in earth."

Rev 1:8 I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, says the Lord, Who is, and Who was, and Who is to come, the Almighty. (compare Rev 4:8)

(See also Mt 11:27; Lk 10:22; Jhn 17:2; Eph 1:21; Col 2:10; Rev 5:13) top

7.) He is the judge of the world (Jhn 5:22-23; 2Tim 4:1):

Paul wrote, "For we must all appear before the judgment seat of Christ" (2Cor 5:10). Again, "...we shall all stand before the judgment seat of Christ. For it is written, As I live, says the Lord, every knee shall bow to Me, and every tongue shall confess to God. So then every one of us shall give account of himself to God." (Rom 14:10-12) This second passage contains an explicit quote from Isa 45:23 where the speaker is God:

Isa 45:22-23 Look unto Me, and be saved, all the ends of the earth: for I am God, and there is none else. I have sworn by Myself, the word is gone out of My mouth in righteousness, and shall not return, that unto Me every knee shall bow, every tongue shall swear.

For Paul, to "stand before the judgment seat of Christ" is nothing less than to "confess to God" and "give account . . . to God." top

8.) He is King of kings and Lord of lords (Rev 17:14; 19:16):

Rev 17:14 These shall make war with the Lamb, and the Lamb shall overcome them: for He is Lord of lords, and King of kings.

Jesus is not simply a king in the way that David, Solomon, or any other king who reigned in Judah and Israel were kings. He is the "King of kings" (Rev 17:14; 19:16). Nor is He a lord in the sense that Abraham was Sarah's "lord" (Gen 18:12; 1Pt 3:6) or in the sense that Jacob called his brother Esau "lord" (Gen 33:8, 13-15). Jesus is "Lord of lords." Yahweh assumed this title in the Old Testament Dt 10:17; Ps 136:1-3). Indeed, only God can legitimately assume this title; for He is "the blessed and only Potentate, the King of kings, and Lord of lords; Who alone has immortality, dwelling in the light which no man can approach unto; Whom no man has seen, nor can see: to Whom be honor and power everlasting. Amen." (1Tim 6:15) top

CHAPTER 3: COMMON OBJECTIONS

1.) How can Jesus be both the Son of God and God Himself?

From the outset, we admit that we may not be able to answer this objection in such a way that everyone will be rationally satisfied. It seems a rational contradiction to say that God is one and yet that Jesus and the Father--two distinct Persons--are one and the same God. But Scripture does teach that Jesus and the Father are one (Jhn 10:30). How two distinct persons can be one is, again, not easy to understand, but this is plainly taught in Scripture.

It should be pointed out here that Jesus is not merely one with the Father in the sense that all God's people are one with each other (cf. Jhn 17:1, 11, 21-22; 1Cor 12:20; Gal 3:28) and one with even God Himself (cf. Jhn 17:21). God's people are united with each other and God in fellowship, not because they share a common nature with God. Jesus, however, does share a common nature with God--"But to the Son He says, 'Thy throne O God. . .' " (Heb 1:8--a quote from Ps 45:6 where "God" is the Hebrew name Elohim). John tells us that Jesus is "the only begotten God (monogenh.j qeo.j^{7)" (Jhn 1:18).} Jesus prefaces His words "I and My Father are one" by saying "My Father . . . is greater than all." (Jhn 10:29) His point, therefore, was not that He was one with the Father in fellowship or purpose, but in power.

This may be a mystery which we are simply unable to comprehend. Indeed, Paul declares that in Christ is found "the mystery of godliness" (1Tim 3:16; see also Col 4:3). If Christ was fully understood by Paul, he would not have called Christ a mystery. Should we think that we have been given a greater revelation than the apostle Paul? This is doubtful (see 2Cor 12:1-7; Eph 3:3-5). So we should not be surprised to discover that we, with our finite minds, can not fully comprehend the nature of God. God is ultimately incomprehensible (cf. Isa 55:8-9; Ps 139:6; 145:3; Rom 11:33-34). We must not allow reason to dictate to us what can or can not be true, especially on this lofty subject. The ultimate authority for determining truth is not man's puny brain, but Scripture. Scripture teaches that Jesus is the Son of God, so thence we go; it also teaches that Jesus is God, so thence we go. top

2.) The Scriptures teach that God is immortal (Gen 21:33; Dt 33:27; Ps 90:2; 102:12; Isa 40:28; Hab 1:12; Rom 16:26; 1Tim 1:17; 6:16; etc.). So if Jesus was God, how could He have died?

Firstly, we should admit that we do believe that Jesus Christ died on the cross. This can not be denied (Mk 15:37; Jhn 19:30; Rom 5:6, 8; 6:9; 8:34; 14:9; 1Cor 15:3; 1Pt 3:18; etc.). However, there are passages which suggest that Christ did not simply cease to exist when He died. He told the thief on the cross next to Him, "Today you shall be with Me in paradise." (Lk 23:43) Again, as Christ was dying He said, "Father, into Thy hands I commit My spirit." (Lk 23:46; cf. 2Cor 5:8) These passages suggest that Christ did not cease to exist spiritually.⁸Accordingly, many theologians have speculated that Christ died only according to His human nature, but not according to His divine nature.

In his famous hymn And Can It Be, Charles Wesley wrote,

'Tis mystery all, the Immortal dies,

Who can explore this strange design?

This is indeed a profound mystery. Nevertheless, we must remember that even the apostle Paul considered Christ to be mysterious (Col 4:3; 1Tim 3:16). So whether or not we have answered this question in such a way as to erase all mystery from the mind of the reader is really irrelevant. If the Scriptures teach that Jesus is God, then this teaching should not be rejected simply because it is mysterious to us. top

3.) Why did Jesus pray to God if He Himself was God?

Jesus prayed to the Father (Mt 26:39, 42; Jhn 17:1ff.). This does not prove that Jesus was not God. It only proves that He was not the Father. There are three distinguishable Persons within the Godhead--the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit (Mt 3:16-17; 28:19; Jhn 14:26; Rom 8:9-11; 1Cor 12:4-6; 2Cor 13:14; Gal 4:6; 1Pt 1:2). And while these three Persons constitute a single God, They are distinct one from another. This is what we mean when we speak of the "Trinity": namely, one God in three Persons. As the Westminster Larger Catechism states, "There are three Persons in the Godhead, the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit; and these three are one true, eternal God, the same in esence, equal in power and glory; although distinguished by their personal properties." God is truly one in being (Dt 6:4; 32:39; Isa 43:10; 44:6, 8; 45:5, 21; Mk 12:32; 1Cor 8:6; Jas 2:19), but three in person.

Once again, this may be difficult to understand, but we do not have the prerogative to dismiss what Scripture teaches simply because we cannot understand it. God will not stand in the bar of human reason and wait for man to determine who God is and how He ought to be de    scribed. As the apostle Paul puts it, "Let God be true and every man a liar." (Rom 3:4) top

4.) If Jesus was a Son, does this not imply that He was created?

The fact that Jesus was a Son does not imply that He was created, because while Scripture teaches that Jesus became a Son when He was alive on earth (Ac 13:33; Heb 1:5-6), it also teaches that He existed before He ever walked the earth (Jhn 8:58; 17:5; Col 1:17). If His being born implies that He was created, then how could He have existed before He was born? Jesus, in the New Testament, is said to have "neither beginning of days, nor end of life." (Heb 7:3) And while He has not always existed in a human body, He is, nonetheless, eternal. The prophesy in Micah 5:2 states that the Messiah's "goings forth are from of old, from the days of eternity." Jesus is said to be "the first and the last" (Rev 1:17-18; 2:8, 19; 22:13) just as Yahweh, in the Old Testament, was said to be "the first and the last" (Isa 41:4; 44:6).

It is true that Jesus is called "the firstborn of all creation" (Col 1:15) and "the beginning of the creation of God" (Rev 3:14). But these passages refer to His resurrection. Jesus is "the firstborn from the dead" (Col 1:18; Rev 1:5). There is a sense in which Jesus was born when He was resurrected (Ac 13:33; Rom 1:4). This does not mean that before His resurrection Jesus had not been born physically or, even worse, had not yet existed. Creation and birth are often used as metaphors to express something which is dramatically new, rejuvenated, changed or rennovated: a converted person is said to have been reborn or recreated (Jhn 3:3-8; 2Cor 5:17; Gal 6:15; Eph 4:24); God will "create a new heaven and a new earth" (Isa 65:17; Rev 21:1). In a similar way, the resurrection is described in terms of rebirth or recreation (cf. Rom 6:4). Jesus was the first human being to receive a glorified body. Thus, He became "the firstborn of all creation," that is, "the firstborn from the dead." This does not imply that He is a created being; it simply means that He was the first to experience the resurrection (Ac 26:23; 1Cor 15:20-23). top

5.) Why did Jesus say, "The Father is greater than I" (Jhn 14:28)?

Jesus was not admitting here that He was something less than the Father in being or essence. Rather, He was admitting that He was functionally subordinate to the Father. Jesus came not to exercise His own authority, seek His own glory, or do His own will but His Father's (Jhn 5:19, 30; 6:38; 7:16; 8:50; 12:49). In this sense He is subordinate to the Father, just as the Spirit is functionally subordinate to the Son (Jhn 16:13-15). Nevertheless, in being or essence Jesus and the Father are equal (Jhn 5:18; Php 2:6⁹). top

6.) How could Jesus be tempted if He was God?

The Bible teaches that "God can not be tempted with evil" (Jas 1:13). But this means only that God can not succumb to temptation. God can certainly be tempted (Ex 17:2, 7; Dt 6:16; Ps 78:18, 41, 56; 106:14; Mal 3:15; Ac 5:9; 15:10). For why else would God have commanded, "You shall not tempt Yahweh your God, as you tempted Him at Massah" (Dt 6:16)? It is not inconsistent with Scripture, therefore, to say that Jesus was tempted (as we see in Mt 4:1-10; 22:17-18; Jhn 8:6), but that Jesus was still God; for Jesus never succumbed to any temptation:

Heb 4:15 For we have not a High Priest Who cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin. top

CONCLUSION:

While much more could be said on the subject of Christs deity, hopefully the reader will realize from what has been discussed that Jesus is much more than a man, angel, or even a demigod; He is God Himself. And while slick interpretive maneuvers or alleged contradictions in reason might prevent those with a closed mind from realizing this truth, we pray the reader will be able to embrace it with open arms and a humble, submissive mind. As Christians (Ac 11:26), let us worship and serve Jesus Christ as our Creator (Jhn 1:1-3,10; Col 1:16-18; Heb 1:10), Lord (Ac 10:36; 1Cor 12:3; 16:22), Master (Jhn 13:13; Jude 4¹⁰), Savior (Lk 2:11), Redeemer (Rom 3:24; Eph 1:7; Rev 5:9), King (Rev 19:16), Judge (2Tim 4:1), and God (Jhn 1:1; 20:28). top

APPENDIX: TECHNICAL DISCUSSION ON THE GRAMMAR AND TRANSLATION OF JOHN 1:1

Jhn 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

Some have contended that since "God" in this verse is used without the definite article "the" (o`), it should be translated indefinitely--"a god." But Greek, like English, does not require that a noun have a definite article in order for it to be definite. In English, if I were to say, "I worship God," the fact that I did not use "the" does not imply that I worship other gods as well, or that I believe other gods besides this one even exist. Greek is no different. Certain nouns do not require a definite article simply because they are regarded as one-of-a-kind. Proper names and monadic¹¹ nouns fall under this classification.

Examples of proper names used without the definite article include "Jesus" (1Jhn 4:15; "Paul" Ac 19:1; "Jerusalem" (Lk 24:13; etc. Examples of monadic nouns used without the definite article include "earth" (2Pt 3:13; "sun" (Lk 21:25; "heaven" (Rev 21:1; "law" (Rom 5:20); "God" (Mt 4:4; 14:33; 27:54; Lk 1:35; Jhn 13:3; Ac 5:39; Rom 1:7¹³, 17-18; 3:18; 8:33; 11:33; 13:1; 1Th 2:5; Heb 3:12; 10:31; Jas 2:23; 1Pt 1:2; 2Pt 1:17; Jude 1:1, 25; etc.). Proper names are always definite. But if a monadic noun lacks a definite article, the noun's definiteness must be determined by other grammatical rules or by context. As it turns out, John did not attach a definite article to God in the opening verse of his Gospel because "God" is a predicate nominative noun. Since "the Word" a subject nominative noun--was placed after the verb "was", it required the definite article. But since "God" a predicate nominative noun--was placed before the verb, a definite article was unnecessary.¹⁴ Bruce Metzger, the eminent Greek scholar of Princeton, has observed, "A definite predicate nominative has the article when it follows the verb; it does not have the article when it precedes the verb."¹⁵Admittedly, there are instances in which both subject and predicate nominatives have the article¹⁶ ; but in such instances, the first noun is always the subject while the second is the predicate. Similarly, there are instances in which a definite nominative follows the verb, but does not have the article¹⁷; but in such instances this nominative is always understood to be a predicate. Metzgers point is that a definite predicate nominative never precedes the verb and still has the article. In John 1:1, "God"  is a definite predicate nominative. And since it also precedes the verb, it lacks the article.

One final point needs to be made. Those who translate qeo.j in John 1:1 as "a god" simply because it lacks the definite article ought to be consistent with their translation. Every time qeo.j occurs without the definite article, they should translate it as "a god":

Mk 12:27 He is not a god of the dead, but of the living:

1Tim 2:5 For there is one god, and one mediator between a god and men, the man Christ Jesus;

2Pt 1:17 For He received from a god the Father honor and glory, when there came such a voice to Him from the excellent glory, "This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased."

Jude 1:1 . . . to those having been sanctified in a god the Father . . .

see also 1Th 2:5; Php 2:11; 1Pt 1:2)

Even in the first chapter of John's Gospel such a rule of translation would be ridiculous to follow:

Jhn 1:6 There was a man sent from a god, whose name was John.

Jhn 1:12 But as many as received Him, to them He gave power to become the sons of a god, even to them that believe on His name.

Jhn 1:13 who were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of a god.

Jhn 1:18 No man has seen a god at any time.

Clearly John did not intend for us to read "a god" in these verses. Nor did he intend for us to read, "the Word was a god" in verse 1. The proper translation of this verse is "In the beginning was the Word; and the Word was with God, and the Word was God." top

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^{The  footnotes using Greek or Hebrew fonts have not been included..}

¹This is called "Sharp's rule." It states: When two singular personal nouns (either substantive or adjective, or participle) of the same case connected by the copulative kai. ("and") have an article before the first noun and no article before the second, the second noun always refers to the same person being expressed or described by the first: e.g."the son of Mary and brother of James" (Mk 6:3); "the Lord and Savior Jesus Christ (2Pt 2:20); "Tychichus, the beloved brother and faithful deacon" (Eph 6:21); "the King of kings and Lord of lords" (1Tim 6:15); "the Apostle and High Priest of our profession, Jesus" (Heb 3:1); "I John, the brother of you and partner" (Rev 1:9); etc. Similarly, in 2Pt 1:1 and Titus 2:13, the definite article tou/ ("the") is used only once before qeou/ (+"God"), but not before Ihsou/ Cristou/ ("Jesus Christ"). Both qeou/ ("God") and Ihsou/ Cristou/ ("Jesus Christ") are in the genetive case. They are also connected by the copulative kai. ("and"). Hence, it is understood that they are one and the same Person. [For other examples, as well as a more in-depth discussion of this rule, see A. T. Robertson, A Grammar of the Greek New Testament (Nashville: Broadman Press, 1934), pp. 785-786]. Return

²For a technical discussion on the grammar and translation of this verse, see Appendix. Return

³This is an allusion to Isa 11:1, 10 which was a Messianic prophesy. Jesus was said earlier to be "the root of David" (Rev 5:5). Return

⁴John frequently makes such parentheses in his Gospel, especially when he feels Jesus' words need to be interpreted (e.g. Jhn 2:21; 6:64, 71; 7:39; 8:27) Return

⁵In John 5:19 The Jerusalem Bible reads: "To this accusation Jesus replied: . . ." The New World Translation reads: "XXXX". The Greek text, however, simply reads, "So Jesus answered and said . . ."  Return

⁶He had the authority to do this, of course, since He is "the Lord of the sabbath day" (Mt 12:8) Return

⁷This is the preferred reading of manuscripts having the Alexandrian text type (P⁷⁵, P⁶⁶,a, 33, B, L, etc.). Th majority text tradition favors "only begotten Son". But usually those who deny Christ's deity prefer manuscripts of the Alexandrian text type because the majority texts tend to be much more difficult for them to deal with--for example: "God was manifest in the flesh" (1Tim 3:16). Return

⁸Contrary to the Jehovah's Witnesses religion which claims: ". . . the Bible says that Jesus did die and was unconscious in the tomb." [Should You Believe the Trinity? (Brooklyn, NY: Watch Tower Bible and Tract Society of New York, Inc., 1989) p. 18. Itallics added]. Nowhere does the Bible say that Jesus was "unconscious in the tomb." Return

⁹ This passage has been frequently misunderstood. The translation should read literally: "who, existing in the form of God, did not consider being equal with God robbery (snatchery)" or, ". . . did not consider being equal with God something to be grasped (snatched)." Either translation is grammatically and lexically defensible. If the first rendering is correct, Jesus is clearly said to be God. If the second is correct, it could be argued that the reason Jesus did not consider equlity with God something to be grasped was because He was already God. He did not need to reassert Himself or receive vindication from man in this regard (Jhn 5:31-32, 41; 8:50, 54). He might have been tempted to grasp at the glory and spendor which He had before His incarnation (cf. Mt 4:3, 6; 12:38; 16:1; 27:40; Lk 11:16; Jhn 6:15, 30); but rather than succumbing to this temptation, "He humbled Himself, and became obedient, even to the death of the cross." (Php 2:8) On account of this willful obedience, He has received "the Name that is above every name" (vs. 9), and has been restored back to His former glory (Jhn 17:5; Ac 26:13-15; Rev 1:13-18). To understand this verse as meaning that Jesus was not equal with God would destroy the adversative thrust of Paul's teaching. The adversative avlla. ("but") in verse 7 (which speaks of Jesus "taking the form of a servant" [morfh.n dou,lou labw,n]) is emplyed in order to draw a contrast with what was said in verse 6 (which speaks of Jesus "existing in the form of God"). Hence, we are to understand Paul as saying, In spite of the fact that Jesus was equal with God, He humbled Himself. It would be nonsensical to understand him as saying, In spite of the fact that Jesus was never equal with God, He humbled Himself. Moreover, the command is given in verse 3: "Consider one another better than yourselves." Here Paul is saying that in spite of the fact that we are all equal as human beings before God, we are not to grasp at or try to assert this equality; instead, we are to follow Christ's example of humility and consider ourselves subordinate even to those with whom we are equal. Paul is certainly not saying that since other human beings are greater than us, we should follow Christ's example and accept that we are inferior to them. Return

¹⁰ Again, using Sharp's rule (see fotnote 1 above), we should translate this verse: "the only Master and Lord of us, Jesus Christ."  Return

¹¹I.e. nouns which are singular in their own right. A monadic noun refers to something of which there is thought to be only one. Examples will be given momentarily. Return

¹³This verse is especially interesting because "God" is used with "the Father" and yet it lacks the definite article: "from God our Father," not, "from a god our Father" (For this identical expression, see 1Cor 1:3; 2Cor 1:2; Gal 1:3; Eph 1:2; 6:23; Php 1:2; Col 1:2; 2Th 1:2; Phm 1:3). Return

¹⁵See Bruce Metzger, "The Jehovah's Witnesses and Jesus Christ," Theology Today, X (April, 1953), 75. Reprinted in pamphlet form by The Theological Book Agency, Princeton, New Jersey. Return

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